Syllabus of the examination:
1. Awareness of current events of national and international importance.
2. Knowledge and understanding of-
- Indian Polity
- Indian Geography and Environment
- Indian History and culture
- Indian Economy
- General Science and technology
3. Questions on English language and comprehension, logical reasoning and analytical ability.
4. Questions on decision making and problem-solving
rankings since 2015, in this context, which of these following indicators have
helped India to improve its ranking?
1. Ease of starting business
2. Political stability and safety
3. Creative goods exports
4. Growth rate of GDP per worker
5. Exports of information and communication technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Global Innovation Index (GII) has ranked India as the 57th most
innovative nation in the world. The country has improved its ranking from 60th position
last year. India has been improving steadily since it was ranked 81st in 2015. These
indicators have helped India to improve its ranking. It includes India’s human capital
(graduates in science & engineering), growth rate of GDP per worker, exports of
information and communication technology (ICT) and services, productivity growth
and creative goods exports etc. However, India has fared badly on indicators such as
ease of starting business, political stability and safety, overall education and
environmental performance. The GII is being developed jointly by Cornell University,
the Paris-based business school Insead and the World Intellectual Property
Organisation (WIPO) in Geneva. GII ranks 126 economies based on 80 indicators. It
is now in its 11th edition and has become a major input for policymakers on innovation
around the world.
Q. Article 368 in Part XX of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of
Parliament to amend the Constitution, in this context which among the
following provisions of the Constitution cannot be amended by a Simple
Majority?
(a) Representation of states in Parliament
(b) Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court
(c) Admission or establishment of new states
(d) Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in states
Answer: (a)
Explanation: By simple majority is meant, simple majority of the members present
and voting i.e. more than 50%. The following provisions of the Constitution also fall
under the same category:
1. Admission or establishment of new States,
2. Formation of new States, changes in the names and boundaries of the States,
3. Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States by Parliament,
4. Salaries and allowances of the President, Governors and Judges of Supreme Court
and High Courts (Second schedule of the Constitution).
5. Quorum for transaction of business in the Parliament.
6. Powers, privileges and immunities of members of Parliament.
7. Acquisition and termination of citizenship.
8. Delimitation of constituencies.
9. Number of Puisne judge in the Supreme Court.
For the representation of states in the Parliament we need special majority with
ratification by the state legislature.
Q. Regarding the Fundamental Duties which are mentioned in the Part IV-A of
the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. As the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in character the Parliament cannot
impose any penalty or punishment for the failure to fulfill any of it.
2. All the Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution.
3. Fundamental Duties are applicable to every one including the citizens and to the
aliens.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental duties were added by 42nd and
86th Constitutional Amendment acts. As of now there are 11 Fundamental duties
available to the citizens. Citizens are morally obligated by the Constitution to perform
these duties. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens and not to the
aliens. Fundamental Duties have the element of compulsion regarding compliance. In
this regard a number of judicial decisions are available towards the enforcement of
certain clauses of the Fundamental Duties. In order to ensure that no disrespect is
shown to the National Flag, Constitution of India and the National anthem, the
Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 was enacted.
Q. which one of the following is the best description of the term Deficit
financing, which was in the news recently?
(a) It is the excess of government's current expenditure over its current revenue.
(b) It is the difference of borrowing from external and internal resources.
(c) It is an excess of government total expenditure over it's total revenue.
(d) It is the capital expenditure on items of public contractions and public borrowings.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Deficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher
than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with
outside resources. The expenditure revenue gap is financed by either printing of
currency or through borrowing. Nowadays most governments both in the developed
and developing world are having deficit budgets and these deficits are often financed
through borrowing. Hence the fiscal deficit is the ideal indicator of deficit financing.
Q. Regarding the ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)’,
which was in the news recently, consider the following statements:
1. RCEP is a recently signed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between
Asia-Pacific countries.
2. RCEP member countries account for almost three-fourth of the world’s population.
3. In terms of economy RCEP is the world's largest economic bloc.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed
free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six Asia-Pacific
states with which ASEAN has existing free trade agreements. RCEP trade agreement
is expected to conclude next year. RCEP countries will meet for a round of
negotiations in Indonesia in February and the ministerial in Thailand in April followed
by another round of talks in Australia in May. 16 RCEP participating countries account
for almost half of the world’s population; contribute about 30 per cent of global GDP
and over a quarter of world exports.
Q. If there is consistent decline in birth rate of a country then what would be its
likely impact on economy?
(a) There will be decrease in savings.
(b) Per capita income of the country will decrease
(c) Investment in the country will increase.
(d) Per capita income of the country will increase.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The inverse relationship between income and fertility has been termed
a demographic-economic paradox. Thomas Malthus, in his book An Essay on the
Principle of Population, proposed that greater means (higher income) would enable
the production of more offspring (a higher fertility rate). However, nations or sub
populations with higher GDP per capita are observed to have a lower fertility rate.
Q. In which one of the following states of India, the World Economic Forum has
launched its new Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution?
(a) Haryana
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The World Economic Forum has announced its new Centre for the
Fourth Industrial Revolution in India, which would aim to bring together the
government and business leaders to pilot emerging technology policies. The centre,
which was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi would be based in Maharashtra
and it has selected drones, artificial intelligence and blockchain as the first three
project areas. NITI Aayog will coordinate the partnership on behalf of the government
and the work of the centre among multiple ministries.
Q. The rational behind the imposition of tax in any democratic society is to
(a) Control the inflation in the country
(b) Reduce the black Money
(c) Control the income of the people
(d) Generate Funds for government expenditure
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Most government programs are working effectively to solve our social
problems, and that government is the only way to promote important values like
justice and economic security – therefore the taxes needed to support these
government activities.
Q. If you see the world Map you will find that there are two continents which are
just like the mirror image of each other, identify these Continents
(a) North America and South America
(b) Europe and Asia
(c) Antarctica and Australia
(d) South America and Africa
Answer: (d)
Explanation: South America and Africa are mirror images of each other. If you have
ever looked at a map of the Atlantic Ocean, you have probably noticed that the
coastlines of Africa and South America seem to fit together like pieces of a jigsaw
puzzle. The fit between the two coastlines is even better when the edges of the
continental shelf are compared.
Q. why the weight of an individual is greater at the poles than at the equator?
(a) It is because of the shape of the earth
(b) Because the attraction of the moon is maximum at the poles.
(c) Gravitational pull is more at the poles than the equator.
(d) Because the attraction of the sun is maximum at the poles.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Weight of the body is the force with which it is attracted towards the
center of the earth. As the distance of the pole is less than the distance of the equator
from the center of the earth, the force of attraction is higher on the body at poles than
at the equator.
Q. To increases soil fertility and crop yield some farmers practice Rotation of
crops method, which means-
(a) Growing two crops at one time
(b) Growing different crops in Succession.
(c) Same crop is grown after some time.
(d) Growing fruits and vegetable in the same field.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Crop rotation is the practice of growing a series of dissimilar or different
types of crops in the same area in sequenced seasons. It is done so that the soil of
farms is not used for only one set of nutrients. It helps in reducing soil erosion and
increases soil fertility and crop yield.
Q. Consider the following statements about the Nehru Report of 1928:
1. It stated that the next immediate step for India must be dominion status.
2. It rejected the device of separate electorates, but provided for the protection of
minorities through a system of reservations.
3. It was approved by the Congress but rejected by the Muslim League.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Motilal Nehru Report 1928 was a report by a committee headed by
Pt. Motilal Nehru. This report was submitted on August 28, 1928 at the Lucknow
conference of all the parties. But Jinnah Voted against this report.
Q. Given below are four events pertaining to the Indian National Movement:
1. Establishment of the Indian National Army
2. Death of Rabindranath Tagore
3. Lahore Session of the Muslim League
4. Announcement of the Cripps Mission
Which of the following sequences represents the correct chronological order of
these events?
(a)2-3-4-1
(b)3-2-4-1
(c)3-2-1-4
(d)4-3-1-2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Lahore session of the Muslim league, which passed the Pakistan
Resolution was held in March 1940. Rabindranath Tagore died in 1941 Churchill
announced the Cripps Mission on March 11, 1942, and I.N.A. was formed on
September 1, 1942.
1. Awareness of current events of national and international importance.
2. Knowledge and understanding of-
- Indian Polity
- Indian Geography and Environment
- Indian History and culture
- Indian Economy
- General Science and technology
3. Questions on English language and comprehension, logical reasoning and analytical ability.
4. Questions on decision making and problem-solving
Model Test Paper
Q. India has consistently been
climbing up its Global Innovation Index (GII)rankings since 2015, in this context, which of these following indicators have
helped India to improve its ranking?
1. Ease of starting business
2. Political stability and safety
3. Creative goods exports
4. Growth rate of GDP per worker
5. Exports of information and communication technology
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Global Innovation Index (GII) has ranked India as the 57th most
innovative nation in the world. The country has improved its ranking from 60th position
last year. India has been improving steadily since it was ranked 81st in 2015. These
indicators have helped India to improve its ranking. It includes India’s human capital
(graduates in science & engineering), growth rate of GDP per worker, exports of
information and communication technology (ICT) and services, productivity growth
and creative goods exports etc. However, India has fared badly on indicators such as
ease of starting business, political stability and safety, overall education and
environmental performance. The GII is being developed jointly by Cornell University,
the Paris-based business school Insead and the World Intellectual Property
Organisation (WIPO) in Geneva. GII ranks 126 economies based on 80 indicators. It
is now in its 11th edition and has become a major input for policymakers on innovation
around the world.
Q. Article 368 in Part XX of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of
Parliament to amend the Constitution, in this context which among the
following provisions of the Constitution cannot be amended by a Simple
Majority?
(a) Representation of states in Parliament
(b) Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court
(c) Admission or establishment of new states
(d) Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in states
Answer: (a)
Explanation: By simple majority is meant, simple majority of the members present
and voting i.e. more than 50%. The following provisions of the Constitution also fall
under the same category:
1. Admission or establishment of new States,
2. Formation of new States, changes in the names and boundaries of the States,
3. Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the States by Parliament,
4. Salaries and allowances of the President, Governors and Judges of Supreme Court
and High Courts (Second schedule of the Constitution).
5. Quorum for transaction of business in the Parliament.
6. Powers, privileges and immunities of members of Parliament.
7. Acquisition and termination of citizenship.
8. Delimitation of constituencies.
9. Number of Puisne judge in the Supreme Court.
For the representation of states in the Parliament we need special majority with
ratification by the state legislature.
Q. Regarding the Fundamental Duties which are mentioned in the Part IV-A of
the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. As the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in character the Parliament cannot
impose any penalty or punishment for the failure to fulfill any of it.
2. All the Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution.
3. Fundamental Duties are applicable to every one including the citizens and to the
aliens.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental duties were added by 42nd and
86th Constitutional Amendment acts. As of now there are 11 Fundamental duties
available to the citizens. Citizens are morally obligated by the Constitution to perform
these duties. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens and not to the
aliens. Fundamental Duties have the element of compulsion regarding compliance. In
this regard a number of judicial decisions are available towards the enforcement of
certain clauses of the Fundamental Duties. In order to ensure that no disrespect is
shown to the National Flag, Constitution of India and the National anthem, the
Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 was enacted.
Q. which one of the following is the best description of the term Deficit
financing, which was in the news recently?
(a) It is the excess of government's current expenditure over its current revenue.
(b) It is the difference of borrowing from external and internal resources.
(c) It is an excess of government total expenditure over it's total revenue.
(d) It is the capital expenditure on items of public contractions and public borrowings.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Deficit financing is the budgetary situation where expenditure is higher
than the revenue. It is a practice adopted for financing the excess expenditure with
outside resources. The expenditure revenue gap is financed by either printing of
currency or through borrowing. Nowadays most governments both in the developed
and developing world are having deficit budgets and these deficits are often financed
through borrowing. Hence the fiscal deficit is the ideal indicator of deficit financing.
Q. Regarding the ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)’,
which was in the news recently, consider the following statements:
1. RCEP is a recently signed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between
Asia-Pacific countries.
2. RCEP member countries account for almost three-fourth of the world’s population.
3. In terms of economy RCEP is the world's largest economic bloc.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed
free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six Asia-Pacific
states with which ASEAN has existing free trade agreements. RCEP trade agreement
is expected to conclude next year. RCEP countries will meet for a round of
negotiations in Indonesia in February and the ministerial in Thailand in April followed
by another round of talks in Australia in May. 16 RCEP participating countries account
for almost half of the world’s population; contribute about 30 per cent of global GDP
and over a quarter of world exports.
Q. If there is consistent decline in birth rate of a country then what would be its
likely impact on economy?
(a) There will be decrease in savings.
(b) Per capita income of the country will decrease
(c) Investment in the country will increase.
(d) Per capita income of the country will increase.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The inverse relationship between income and fertility has been termed
a demographic-economic paradox. Thomas Malthus, in his book An Essay on the
Principle of Population, proposed that greater means (higher income) would enable
the production of more offspring (a higher fertility rate). However, nations or sub
populations with higher GDP per capita are observed to have a lower fertility rate.
Q. In which one of the following states of India, the World Economic Forum has
launched its new Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution?
(a) Haryana
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The World Economic Forum has announced its new Centre for the
Fourth Industrial Revolution in India, which would aim to bring together the
government and business leaders to pilot emerging technology policies. The centre,
which was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi would be based in Maharashtra
and it has selected drones, artificial intelligence and blockchain as the first three
project areas. NITI Aayog will coordinate the partnership on behalf of the government
and the work of the centre among multiple ministries.
Q. The rational behind the imposition of tax in any democratic society is to
(a) Control the inflation in the country
(b) Reduce the black Money
(c) Control the income of the people
(d) Generate Funds for government expenditure
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Most government programs are working effectively to solve our social
problems, and that government is the only way to promote important values like
justice and economic security – therefore the taxes needed to support these
government activities.
Q. If you see the world Map you will find that there are two continents which are
just like the mirror image of each other, identify these Continents
(a) North America and South America
(b) Europe and Asia
(c) Antarctica and Australia
(d) South America and Africa
Answer: (d)
Explanation: South America and Africa are mirror images of each other. If you have
ever looked at a map of the Atlantic Ocean, you have probably noticed that the
coastlines of Africa and South America seem to fit together like pieces of a jigsaw
puzzle. The fit between the two coastlines is even better when the edges of the
continental shelf are compared.
Q. why the weight of an individual is greater at the poles than at the equator?
(a) It is because of the shape of the earth
(b) Because the attraction of the moon is maximum at the poles.
(c) Gravitational pull is more at the poles than the equator.
(d) Because the attraction of the sun is maximum at the poles.
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Weight of the body is the force with which it is attracted towards the
center of the earth. As the distance of the pole is less than the distance of the equator
from the center of the earth, the force of attraction is higher on the body at poles than
at the equator.
Q. To increases soil fertility and crop yield some farmers practice Rotation of
crops method, which means-
(a) Growing two crops at one time
(b) Growing different crops in Succession.
(c) Same crop is grown after some time.
(d) Growing fruits and vegetable in the same field.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Crop rotation is the practice of growing a series of dissimilar or different
types of crops in the same area in sequenced seasons. It is done so that the soil of
farms is not used for only one set of nutrients. It helps in reducing soil erosion and
increases soil fertility and crop yield.
Q. Consider the following statements about the Nehru Report of 1928:
1. It stated that the next immediate step for India must be dominion status.
2. It rejected the device of separate electorates, but provided for the protection of
minorities through a system of reservations.
3. It was approved by the Congress but rejected by the Muslim League.
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)None of the above
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Motilal Nehru Report 1928 was a report by a committee headed by
Pt. Motilal Nehru. This report was submitted on August 28, 1928 at the Lucknow
conference of all the parties. But Jinnah Voted against this report.
Q. Given below are four events pertaining to the Indian National Movement:
1. Establishment of the Indian National Army
2. Death of Rabindranath Tagore
3. Lahore Session of the Muslim League
4. Announcement of the Cripps Mission
Which of the following sequences represents the correct chronological order of
these events?
(a)2-3-4-1
(b)3-2-4-1
(c)3-2-1-4
(d)4-3-1-2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Lahore session of the Muslim league, which passed the Pakistan
Resolution was held in March 1940. Rabindranath Tagore died in 1941 Churchill
announced the Cripps Mission on March 11, 1942, and I.N.A. was formed on
September 1, 1942.
